Human Anatomy and Physiology II
Final Exam, Version 2 - May 19, 1993
Dr. Chabot
Multiple Choice (@2 points): Circle the letter of the one best answer. GOOD LUCK!
ANSWER ALL QUESTIONS! HAVE A GREAT SUMMER!
1. In normal, healthy adults, when blood glucose levels rise, glucose is removed from the blood via the action of:
A. glycogen
B. the liver
C. glucagon
D. the pancreas
2. Small food molecules are absorbed primarily in the:
A. mouth
B. esophagus
C. stomach
D. small intestine
E. large intestine
3. Which bodily function is NOT a particular function of the liver?
A. detoxification
B. glycogen storage
C. production of bile
D. production of blood proteins
E. production of protein-digesting enzymes
4. In which portion of the digestive tract would you expect to find contents with the highest concentration of free fatty acids?
A. colon
B. cecum
C. stomach
D. duodenum
E. esophagus
5. Some of the functions of the stomach include:
A. digestion
B. some absorption
C. mechanical breakdown of food
D. A and C
E. All of the above
6. Protein digestion takes place in the:
A. mouth only
B. stomach only
C. small intestine only
D. mouth and stomach only
E. stomach and small intestine only
7. HCl is released in the stomach and functions to:
A. alter protein shape to make them more digestible
B. induce the formation of pepsin from pepsinogen
C. digest proteins
D. A and B
E. All of the above
8. Cholesterol has always received bad publicity despite the fact that:
A. it has never been correlated with any type of disease in humans
B. it cannot even be absorbed across the lining of the small intestine
C. it is a requirement of every cell in the human body
D. it is quickly broken down into harmless components in the bloodstream
E. humans do not ingest significant amounts of cholesterol
8. Which of the following statements explains why the stomach does not digest itself?
A. HCl protects the lining of the stomach
B. The stomach wall is protected by copious amounts (lots) of mucus
C. The lining of the stomach is too tough to be attacked by the digestive enzymes
D. The stomach wall is not composed of protein, and so there is no digestive enzyme to attack it
E. The digestive enzymes in the stomach are not efficient enough to digest the stomach
10. The only essential function of the stomach is to:
A. digest proteins
B. absorb nutrients
C. secrete intrinsic factor
D. digest fats
11. The function of bile is to:
A. digest fats
B. emulsify fats
C. digest proteins
D. emulsify proteins
12. Digestion takes place primarily in the:
A. jejunum
B. ileum
C. duodenum
D. cecum
13. Motility of the intestines occurs on a regular basis when:
A. pacemaker potentials stimulate the smooth muscles lining the intestine
B. the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated
C. they are empty
D. HCl is released
14. After ingestion of a well-balanced meal, the presence of __________ can be detected in lymphatic vessels.
A. digestive hormones
B. fatty acids
C. degraded enzymes
D. amino acids
15. The digestive tract absorbs nutrients very efficiently primarily because of structures known as:
A. jejunums
B. microvilli
C. mesenteries
D. epiglottis
16. Amino acids and simple sugars are transported to the liver from the small intestine via:
A. a portal system
B. the lymphatic system
C. the bile duct
D. the digestive duct
17. The primary function of the large intestine is:
A. mechanical digestion
B. chemical digestion
C. nutrient absorption
D. water absorption
18. The gallbladder functions to:
A. produce proteases
B. produce lipases
C. produce carbohydrases
D. store and concentrate bile
E. produce bile
19. Muscles which help to close off certain parts of the digestive tracts are called:
A. sphinctors
B. cremasters
C. squeezers
D. piloerectors
20. Which of the following substances are not produced by the pancreas?
A. bicarbonate ions
B. HCl
C. amylase
D. lipase
21. Which of the following structures carries only sperm?
A. urethra
B. seminal vesicles
C. vas deferens
D. ducts of the prostate
E. interstitial tissue of the testis
22. A "Pap" smear can be used to:
A. diagnose the presence of syphilis
B. diagnose the presence of gonorrhea
C. diagnose the presence of cancer
D. diagnose the presence of HIV
23. Spermatogenesis is stimulated by which of the following hormones?
A. FSH
B. estrogen
C. progesterone
D. testosterone
E. human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
24. The cervix functions:
A. to produce mucous secretions
B. to produce fructose
C. as an organ of stimulation during intercourse
D. A and B
E. All of the above
25. Which of the following is(are) functions of the epididymis?
I. stores sperm;
II. serves as a duct system;
III. produces sperm
A. I only
B. II only
C. III only
D. I and II only
E. I, II, and III
26. After fertilization and implantation of the egg (zygote), the placenta secretes _____ in order to maintain pregnancy.
A. FSH
B. LH
C. estrogen
D. GnRH
27. Which of the following hormones is used as the basis for pregnancy testing?
A. LH
B. hCG
C. estrogen
D. prolactin
E. progesterone
28. A male vasectomy involves the removal of a portion of the:
A. testes
B. vas deferens
C. ureter
D. epididymis
E. urethra
29. Spermatozoa, from the time of their development until the time of ejaculation, are transported through the male reproductive passageways. A number of structures of the reproductive system, each designated by a number, are listed below. Which combination of numbers best describes the route taken by the spermatozoa?
1. seminal vesicles;
2. vas deferens;
3. seminiferous tubules;
4. urethra;
5. epididymis.
A. 1, 2, 5, 4
B. 3, 1, 5, 4
C. 3, 5, 2, 4
D. 4, 2, 3, 6
E. 5, 3, 2, 4
30. During pregnancy the corpus luteum is maintained by the production of:
A. hCG
B. estrogen
C. testosterone
D. progesterone
31. The "pill" if taken daily, shuts off the production of which two hormones?
A. FSH, LH
B. LH, progesterone
C. progesterone, FSH
D. estrogen, progesterone
E. chorionic gonadotropin, testosterone
32. The direct trigger to ovulation seems to be a:
A. sharp increase in LH production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle
B. sharp increase in FSH production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle
C. sharp increase in progesterone production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle
D. sharp increase in prolactin production on approximately day 13 of the menstrual cycle
E. the release of gonadotrophic hormone from the follicle
33. For women over the age of 20, the American Cancer Society suggests:
A. a monthly self-examination
B. a yearly self-examination
C. mammography (X-Rays) every 3 years or so
D. mammography (X-Rays) every year or so
34. In the development of the male and female reproductive systems the __________ and __________ develop from the same embryonic tissue and are thus homologous.
A. seminal vesicle; endometrium
B. bulbourethral (Cowper's) gland; uterine tube
C. inguinal canal; cervix
D. glans penis; clitoris
E. corpora cavernosa; uterus
35. The sympto-thermal method of birth control accurately predicts:
A. menstruation
B. gonadotropin release
C. ovulation
D. hCG release
36. Semen consists of secretions from all of the following EXCEPT:
A. epididymis
B. seminal vesicles
C. prostate gland
D. vestibular (Bartholin's) glands
37. Upon exposure to heat (or an increase in body temperature), the scrotum:
A. is elevated towards the body
B. is lowered away from the body
C. receives less blood
D. none of the above
38. The cells that provide nourishment for the sperm and spermatazoa are called:
A. tube cells
B. nuclear cells
C. Leydig cells
D. Sertoli cells
E. interstitial cells
39. The hormone oxytocin functions to:
A. stimulate the production of breast milk
B. stimulate the production of eggs
C. stimulate the ejection of milk
D. stimulate the ejection of eggs
40. What happens to the corpus luteum if the ovum is NOT fertilized?
A. It releases another ovum
B. It produces another follicle
C. It regresses after approximately 12 days
D. It becomes very large over a period of 3 months
E. It continues to grow until pregnancy occurs
41. The oviducts (Fallopian tubes) are lined with:
A. simple columnar epithelium
B. ciliated columnar epithelium
C. simple squamous
D. stratified squamous
42. Fertilization of the ovum normally (usually) occurs in the:
A. ovary
B. oviduct
C. uterus
D. vagina
E. cervix
43. The function of the ovaries is to:
A. receive the fertilized egg and allow it to develop
B. produce eggs
C. deliver eggs to the cervix
D. provide a passageway for sperm
44. The functional unit of the kidney is known as the:
A. nephron
B. glomerulus
C. Bowman's capsule
D. loop of Henle
45. Which of the following is not part of the ultrafiltrate in the kidney?
A. glucose
B. salts
C. H2O
D. large proteins
46. An increase in the production of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) induces the production of:
A. dilute urine
B. concentrated urine
C. urine with a high concentration of glucose
D. urine with a low concentration of glucose
47. The tubes which drain the kidneys are known as the:
A. proximal tubules
B. distal tubules
C. urethras
D. ureters
48. Tubular reabsorption of important molecules in the kidney involves:
A. active transport
B. diffusion
C. A and B
D. none of the above
49. The primary function(s) of the kidney is (are) to:
A. regulate blood composition of H2O and salts
B. regulate blood pH
C. remove waste products such as ammonia and urea
D. A and C
E. all of the above
50. Tubular secretion in the kidney involves:
A. active transport
B. diffusion
C. A and B
D. none of the above